I have a few questions relating to gonorrhea and chlamydia. My partner who is male had sex with other women before we got together. He was tested for gonorrhea and chlamydia (and all other STDs) a year into our relationship and they were all negative. He is the only person I've ever had sex with. He hasn't been with anyone else since the test. I have no symptoms or problems. I am concerned and would appreciate advice as we are thinking about having a baby.
My questions are,
1) If I am tested now, years later, can I be 100% sure that I never had gonorrhea or chlamydia in the past? Or is it possible I did and that it cleared up on its own?
I've read a lot of contradicting statements where some people say it can, and others say it would be very rare.
2) Is a urine test (PCR I think) accurate? Or would I require a swab of of my cervix area to be absolutely sure?
3) Let's say I had gonorrhea or chlamydia in the past, it cleared up on its own and I now test negative, with no symptoms or pain, is it possible that the past infection already caused damage or PID in my Fallopian tubes that I don't know about?
Wouldn't I have felt any discomfort or pain if this was the case?
4) I had a routine pap smear about 6 months ago (don't think they test for STDs other than HPV). That was all clear. If this is the case can I be sure that there was no damage due to gonorrhea or chlamydia infection in the past? Would they look/test for that kind of thing?
5) Finally if I did have gonorrhea or chlamydia that cleared up on its own, and I test negative now, does this mean that I am at no risk at all of having infertility problems due to these infections? Or should I have a pap smear to make absolutely sure? (I'm not due for my routine pap smear for another 6 months, my last one didn't find any problems).